Different instruments, different values when inverting, different swaps, how is that?
I understand that GBP/USD is the more actively traded and so will have smaller spread. But I would also like to become better informed and like @Alien I would appreciate further explanation from someone who is knowledgeable.
I can see from practice account that, as someone with my account is GBP, I do not have to pay a 0.5% fx charge on the result if I trade USD/GBP, but do pay this if I trade GBP/USD.
I have used CFD fx to hedge currency risk with an open long position on a US stock. Last time I used GBP/USD. I am wondering which of the above is the better for doing this.