So you bought it when it cost you 22.36 to buy 1 USD
You bought at 42.86 dollars so it cost you:
22.36 * 42.86 * 15.649806
14997.9853202
The bid is now 64.25 so thatās
64.25*15.649806
1005.5000355 dollars worth
So a dollar is now worth letās say 21.88
1005.5000355 * 21.88
22000.3407767
So you have gone from
14997.9853202
and would end up with
22000.3407767
A return of 7002.3554565
Without that FX impact you can see the gain using the same rate you bought:
1005.5000355 * 22.36
22482.9807938
Ok, I got it, but I still think itās misleading and donāt reflect reality 
1 share, 10 usd, 25czk
Current price 20 usd
Current rate 20 czk
So it IMHO should be:
1 share, 400czk
Return: 150czk
Gain/loss: 250czk (100%)
Fx impact: -100czk (-20%)
Avg. Price 10usd (250czk)
Sell price: 20usd
Because this is whatās really happened. Share price is 100% up, but fx rate is 20% down.
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NetRod
23
Now fully understanding this.
I agree it would be nice to have a clear split between FX and gain/loss without FX being a factor in gain/loss amount.
1 Like